Hello,
I have a position that has a significant negative cost basis. This is great for me as an investor. One thing I haven't been able to figure out is if and/or how does FM account for that in performance. Last I checked on this a good 6-7 years ago here I was looking at the OOP% Historical and it says N/A.
My first question is does the Cost-Value graph accurately show % (gph, etc) with a position with a negative cost basis.
As well as ROI and TWR reporting?
If not.... and/or what is the best way to view performance of a portfolio with a position that has a negative cost basis?
Thanks for the help