I have a question about the right way to use some of the data from FM to forecast future portfolio performance.
Yeah, I know...past performance is no guarantee...yada yada yada
But ASSUMING I'm willing to assume that my future withdrawals, deposits, incomes, RMDs, etc., remain about as they've been for the past decade or so, and ASSUMING macro economic factors remain about as they've been, would it be reasonable, MATHEMATICALLY AND THEORETICALLY at least, to forecast that my portfolio might behave according to the Internal Rate of Return FM might give me, for the past decade or so?
OR would this be a mathematically, theoretically incorrect use of IRR entirely?
I.e., my question really is about how to use IRR the way it's supposed to be interpreted.
Thx.